May 11, 2015May 11, 2015 J. R. Daniel Kirk
Over the past few
weeks I have been taking occasional soundings into questions
surrounding homosexuality in the ancient world.
Just to clarify what
has not been clear to some: it is obvious to me that Paul did not
approve of (some sort of) same-sex coupling. The question I have been
probing is what did he not approve of, and why?
I regularly hear
that the things Paul stood against were pederasty
prostitution. In a couple of previous posts (here
I questioned whether these forms of same-sex relations existed,
and/or might have otherwise been the object of Paul’s scorn.
Last week I took up
a third possible target for Paul’s same-sex polemic: slave
sex. This was a ubiquitous reality in Rome. And, it was built on
a system of social hierarchy that was deeply embedded in not only
“pagan” Greco-Roman culture, but also early Judaism and nascent
A couple of people
have pushed back against the idea that we look to Greco-Roman context
to understand what Paul might have been communicating. I get it.
There is a theological bent to all of Paul’s thinking that has to
be given some level of primacy. Paul as a Jewish theologian, engaging
and working from the story of Scripture, needs to be a primary
To this I say yes.
Read more at http://www.jrdkirk.com/2015/05/11/homosexuality-and-romans-1/